Not sure where I stand with this. My partner and I have rented a property from an In-Law for over 5+ years. There was only an agreement verbally for the rent that had to be paid monthly. This had been paid month on month with no issues.
Due to an argument with the In-law, they have threatened with selling the property. I understand that is their rite to do so. We have no lease to speak of and the In-law is not a registered landlord.
Where do I stand ? i.e evocation , length of notice ect, ect ?